After an incredibly painful urodynamics, my urologist thinks I have either Fowler's syndrome - a rentention problem, I guess - or vulvar vestibulitis. I had to Google both, but neither makes much sense to me.
The main reason why he's thinking about vestibulitis, is that I told him that I don't have sex during flares, because it hurts. And sometimes sex seems to be a trigger.
But:
- the pain is located in the urethra, not in the vagina (today it seemed the pain was mostly in the urethral sphincter)
- I can have normal sex when not flaring
- When I wasn't sexually active, I was having flares as well
- Even when flaring, I can have sex, it's just not that comfortable
My symptoms are mostly pain in the urethra and a high frequency when flaring. They get worse with drinking alcohol and wearing tight jeans.
How does all of this sound to you?
The main reason why he's thinking about vestibulitis, is that I told him that I don't have sex during flares, because it hurts. And sometimes sex seems to be a trigger.
But:
- the pain is located in the urethra, not in the vagina (today it seemed the pain was mostly in the urethral sphincter)
- I can have normal sex when not flaring
- When I wasn't sexually active, I was having flares as well
- Even when flaring, I can have sex, it's just not that comfortable
My symptoms are mostly pain in the urethra and a high frequency when flaring. They get worse with drinking alcohol and wearing tight jeans.
How does all of this sound to you?
Comment